In This Chapter
^ Tackling 75 multiple-choice questions
^ Responding to six free-response questions
I IN the AP exam, you will be given a list of formulas and constants. You may use your
Cheat Sheet (which mimics the AP formula list) and a periodic table for this exam, but do not use your calculator until the section specifically says that you may. Make sure to time yourself to get a sense of your pacing.
1. CD CD CD CD CD
2. CD CD CD CD CD
3. CD CD CD CD CD
4. CD CD CD CD CD
5. CD CD CD CD CD
6. CD CD CD CD CD
7. CD CD CD CD CD
8. CD CD CD CD CD ^ CD CD CD CD CD 10\ CD CD CD CD CD
11. CD CD CD CD CD
12. CD CD CD CD CD ^ CD CD CD CD CD 1H. CD CD CD CD CD
15. CD CD CD CD CD
16. CD CD CD CD CD ^ CD CD CD CD CD ^ CD CD CD CD CD
19. CD CD CD CD CD
20. CD CD CD CD CD 21 CD CD CD CD CD
22. CD CD CD CD CD
23. CD CD CD CD CD
24. CD CD CD CD CD
25. CD CD CD CD CD
Answer Sheet
26. CD CD CD CD CD
27. CD CD CD CD CD
28. CD CD CD CD CD
29. CD CD CD CD CD
30. CD CD CD CD CD 31 CD CD CD CD CD
32. CD CD CD CD CD
33. CD CD CD CD CD
34. CD CD CD CD CD
35. CD CD CD CD CD
36. CD CD CD CD CD
37. CD CD CD CD CD
38. CD CD CD CD CD
39. CD CD CD CD CD
40. CD CD CD CD CD
41. CD CD CD CD CD
42. CD CD CD CD CD
43. CD CD CD CD CD
44. CD CD CD CD CD
45. CD CD CD CD CD
46. CD CD CD CD CD
47. CD CD CD CD CD
48. CD CD CD CD CD
49. CD CD CD CD CD
50. CD CD CD CD CD
|
51.
|
CD CD CD CD CD
|
|
52.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
53.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
54.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
55.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
56.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
57.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
58.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
59.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
60.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
61.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
62.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
63.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
64.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
65.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
66.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
67.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
68.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
69.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
70.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
71.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
72.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
73.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
74.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
|
75.
|
CD
|
CD
|
CD CD CD
|
Multiple-Choice Questions (90 Minutes)
CALCULATORS MAY NOT BE USED
Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following compounds:
(A) PI3
(B) NO2
(C) Fe2(SO4)3
(D) MnO2
(E) Li2SO4
1. Contains metal with oxidation number +1
2. Contains metal with oxidation number +3
3. Contains metal with oxidation number +4
Questions 4 through 8 refer to the following compounds, which may be used only once:
(A) C2H6
(B) C2H2
(C) C2H5NH2
(D) C2H4
(E) C2H4O
4. Alkene
5. Aldehyde
6. Alkane
7. Amine
8. Alkyne
Questions 9 through 11 refer to the following types of bonding:
(A) Ionic bonding
(B) Covalent bonding
(C) Metallic bonding
(D) Sigma bonding
(E) Pi bonding
9. Characterized by orbital overlap that is symmetrical to a plane
10. Is the most polar form of bonding
11. Characterized by highly mobile electrons
Questions 12 through 14 refer to the following gases:
(A) HCl
(B) O2
(C) NO
(D) NO2
(E) CO
12 Diffuses at the slowest rate
13. Has the most weakly interacting molecules
14. At any given temperature and pressure, has particles with the highest average velocity
15. What volume is closest to that occupied by 56.0g of carbon monoxide gas at standard temperature and pressure?
(A) 2.00L
(B) 11.2L
(C) 34.0L
(D) 44.8L
(E) 68.0L
16. What is the conjugate base of ascorbic acid in the following reaction?
C5H7O4COOH + OH – <rҐ H2O + C5H7O4COO-
(A) C5H7O4COOH
(B) OH-
(C) H2O
(D) C5H7O4COO-
(E) C5H7O4COOH-
Go on to next page

17. The following data list the results for three trials in which compounds W and X reacted to produce compound Y. Given these data, what is the overall reaction order?
Trial [W]/M [X]/M
0.25 0.25 0.50
0.50 1.00 1.00
Initial rate, d[Y]/dt / M s-1
0.20
0.40
1.60
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 7
(E) 12
18. An aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electricity?
(A) Glucose, C6H12O6
(B) Ethanol, C2H6O
(C) Sodium hydroxide, NaOH
(D) Carbon monoxide, CO
(E) Carbon dioxide, CO2
19. Which species does NOT Have the following electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p63J104s24p6
(A) Rb+1
(B) Sr+2
(C) Kr
(D) Br-1
(E) Se
20. A buffer solution of acetic acid and sodium acetate is prepared at pH 5.76. The pATaof acetic acid is 4.76. What is the ratio of acetate to acetic acid (acetate:acetic acid) in the buffer solution?
(A) 1:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 2:1
(D) 1:10
(E) 10:1
21. Consider the following balanced reaction equation:
Cu + 2HCl — CuCl2 + H2
How does the oxidation number of copper change?
(A) 0 to +1
(B) 0 to +2
(C) +1 to -1
(D) +2 to -2
(E) -2 to 0
22. Which of the following is the formula for iron (III) sulfate?
(A) FeS
(B) Fe2S3
(C) FeSO4
(D) Fe3(SO4)2
(E) Fe2(SO4)3
23. What is the approximate mass of nitrogen gas, N2, that occupies a 45L container at 0.50atm and 273K?
(A) 7g
(B) 14g
(C) 22g
(D) 28g
(E) 56g
24. Which of the following is the shape of a molecule whose central atom is surrounded by two atoms and two lone pairs?
(A) Linear
(B) Bent
(C) Trigonal planar
(D) Trigonal bipyramidal
(E) Tetrahedral
3
25. In the following figure of an electrochemical cell, what best represents events occurring at electrode #1 (in Figure 30-1)?
Figure 30-1:
Electrochemical cell.
C(s)
C(s)
ZnSO(aq)
4 n
26. What volume of 0.25 H3PO4 neutralizes 500mL 1.5M KOH?
(A) 600mL
(B) 900mL
(C) 1L
(D) 3L
(E) 6L
27. Prepared at 0.5 molar concentration in water, which of the following solutions has the highest boiling point?
(A) Propanol
(B) Propanoic acid
(C) Iron (II) nitrate
(D) Iron (III) nitrate
(E) Nitric acid
1
2
(A) Electrons travel out of electrode toward voltage source.
(B) Electrons travel out of electrode toward aqueous sulfate ions.
(C) Zinc metal electroplates onto electrode.
(D) Zinc metal donates electrons to electrode.
(E) Oxygen gas bubbles from electrode.
28. Which of the following statements about the energy diagram shown in Figure 30-2 is incorrect?
Figure 30-2: Energy diagram.

Reaction Progress
(A) The overall reaction is endothermic.
(B) The reaction has two intermediates.
(C) Point X represents a transition state.
(D) Raising the energy of point Y decreases the equilibrium concentration of product.
(E) Raising the energy of point X decreases the rate of product formation.
29. In the following reaction, which species are the Lewis acid and Lewis base, respectively?
BF3 + N(CH3)3 — BF3N(CH3)3
(A) BF3, BF3N(CH3)3
(B) BF3, N(CH3)3
(C) BF3N(CH3)3, BF3
(D) BF3N(CH3)3, N(CH3)3
(E) N(CH3)3, BF3
30. The free energy change for a reaction at 273K and 1atm is -35.7 kJ. If the equilibrium constant for the reverse of that reaction is ex, then what is x?
(A) -35700 / (8.314 x 273)
(B) 35700 / (8.314 x 273)
(C) (8.314 x 273) / -35700
(D) (8.314 x 273) / 35700
(E) (ln 35700) / (8.314 x 273)
31. If the ratio of the rate of effusion of an unknown gas to the rate of effusion for helium gas, He(g), is 0.35, what is the approximate molar mass of the unknown
Gas?
(A) 2.9g/mol
(B) 11g/mol
(C) 33g/mol
(D) 1.3 x 102g/mol
(E) 1.4 x 102g/mol
X
Go on to next page

32. Which of the following compounds is least soluble in water?
(A) Sodium propanoate
(B) Propanoic acid
(C) Propanediol
(D) Propanone
(E) Propene
33. What is the EMF of the voltaic cell driven by the following reaction?
Zn(s) + Cu(NO3)2(agJ — Zn(NO3)2(aq) + Cu(s)
The following data may help you arrive at your answer:
Cu2+(aq) + 2e – — Cu(s)E0red = 0.34V
NO3-(aq) + 2H+(aq) + e – — NO2(g) + H2O(I)E0red = 0.78V
Zn2+(aq) + 2e – — Zn(s)E0red = -0.76V
(A) -0.42V
(B) 1.10V
(C) 0.36V
(D) -1.20V
(E) 0.44V
34. Which of the following indicators would be the best choice to monitor a change that occurs at pH = 5.0?
(A) Bromophenol blue, PKa = 4.0
(B) Phenolphthalein, pKa = 7.9
(C) Thymol blue, pKa = 9.3
(D) Methyl red, pKa = 5.1
(E) Methyl orange, pKa = 3.7
35. Which element can have a mass number of 40 and 21 neutrons?
(A) Calcium
(B) Potassium
(C) Argon
(D) Neon
(E) Promethium
36. The net ionic equation for the reaction of lead (II) nitrate with potassium iodide is
(A) KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) — KNO3(aq) + PbI2(aq).
(B) 2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) — 2KNO3(aq) + PbI2(a< ).
(C) 2KI(a< ) + Pb(NO3)2(a< ) — 2KNO3(a< ) + PbI2(s).
(D) 2I-(aq) + Pb2+(aq) — PbI2(s).
(E) 2K+(a< ) + 2I-(a< ) + Pb2+(a< ) + 2NO3-(a< ) — 2K+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + PbI2(s).
37. A sulfide of copper is found to contain 20% sulfur. What is the formula of the compound?
(A) CuS
(B) CuS2
(C) Cu2S
(D) Cu2S2
(E) Cu4S
38. At standard temperature and pressure, how many liters of H2S are produced by the complete reaction of 45.4g of nickel (II) sulfide?
NiS(s) + 2HCl(aq) — NiCl2(aq) + H2S(g)
(A) 0.500L
(B) 11.2L
(C) 41.0L
(D) 49.0L
(E) 91.0L
39. Which metal has the lowest ionization energy?
(A) Lithium
(B) Sodium
(C) Calcium
(D) Strontium
(E) Cesium
40. Which set of coefficients properly balances the equation for the combustion of ethane?
_ethane(g) +_oxygen(g) —_carbon
Dioxide(g) +_water(g)
(A) 1, 7, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 1, 2
(C) 2, 7, 4, 6
(D) 1, 4, 1, 2
(E) 1, 7, 4, 6
41. Which linear compound may exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
(A) Butane
(B) 1-butyne
(C) 1-butene
(D) 2-butene
(E) 2-butyne
42. You dilute 100.mL of a stock NaCl solution by adding 400.mL water, creating a 0.200M NaCl working solution. What is the concentration of the stock solution?
(A) 10.0M
(B) 4.00M
(C) 1.00M
(D) 0.800M
(E) 0.400M
43. At 298K, the Ksp for CuCO3 is 2.5 x 10-10 and the Ksp for BaCrO4 is 2.0 x 10-10. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) In saturated CuCO3, the molar concentration of Cu2+ is 2.5 x 10-5.
(B) In saturated BaCrO4, the molar concentration of Ba2+ is 2.0 x 10-10.
(C) In saturated CuCO3, addition of Cu2+ increases CuCO3 solubility.
(D) BaCrO4 is more soluble in water than CuCO3.
(E) In saturated BaCrO4, the molar concentration of Ba2+ is 1.4 x 10-5.
44. Which of the following compounds is possible?
(I) Fe2(SO4)3
(II) FeSO4
(III) Fe(OH)3
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
45. 48g methane reacts with fluorine gas to produce 48g 1-fluoroethane and hydrogen gas. What is the percent yield? Percent yield = 100% x (actual yield / theoretical yield)
(A) 33%
(B) 66%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
(E) 300%
46. In the compound 2,3-dichloropropene-1-ol what are the hybridizations of carbons 1, 2, and 3, respectively?
(A) sp, sp2, Sp3
(B) sp3, sp2, Sp
(C) Sp2, sp2, sp3
(D) Sp2, sp3, sp3
(E) Sp, sp, sp2
47. Based on the standard reduction potentials listed below, which is the strongest
|
Oxidizing agent?
|
|
Ni2+(a< ) + 2e – — Ni(s)
|
^red
|
= -0.23
|
|
Fe2+(a< ) + 2e – — Fe(s)
|
Eredl
|
= -0.44
|
|
Zn2+(a< ) + 2e – — Zn(s)
|
ERed
|
= -0.76
|
|
Sn2+(a< ) + 2e – — Sn(s)
|
ERed
|
= +0.15
|
|
2H+(aq) + 2e – — H2(g)
|
ERed
|
= 0
|
(A) Ni2+
(B) Fe2+
(C) Zn2+
(D) Sn2+
(E) H+
48. The following reaction achieves equilibrium 51. at 400K:
4H2(g) + 2NO(g) 2H2O(g) + N2(g)
At constant temperature, increasing the volume of the reaction vessel has what effect?
(A) Reaction rates increase.
(B) Water condenses into liquid.
(C) More mass shifts into the form of 52. hydrogen gas.
(D) Less mass shifts into the form of nitrogen monoxide.
(E) There is no effect.
49. 15g of an unreactive crystalline compound are massed and set aside for later use. When the same sample is massed once more before dissolving into a solution, their
New mass is 15.9g. What is the most likely 53. explanation?
(A) The compound degrades.
(B) The compound reacts with itself.
(C) The compound is amphoteric.
(D) The compound is hygroscopic.
(E) The compound is hydrophobic.
50. At 200.K, a certain reaction is spontaneous, having a free energy change of -500. J mol-1 and an enthalpy change of -1.50 x 103 J mol-1. At what temperature does the reaction become nonspontaneous?
(A) 197K
(B) 203K
(C) 300K
(D) 500K
(E) The reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
The pKa of a certain acid is 4.00. What is the Kb of that substance?
(A) 1 x 10-10
(B) 1 x 10-4
(C) 1 x 10-3
(D) 1 x 103
(E) 1 x 1010
An electromagnetic wave travels through air with a wavelength of 300. nm. What is the frequency of the wave?
(A) 6.00 s-1
(B) 9.00 s-1
(C) 9.00 x 1010 s-1
(D) 1.00 x 10-15s-1
(E) 1.00 x 1015 s-1
What amount of water is in a 2.5 molal NaCl solution made with 292.3g NaCl?
(A) 8.6kg
(B) 8.6kg
(C) 5.0L
(D) 2.0kg
(E) 2.0L
54. Moving from left to right, which of the following describes events in segments 2 and 4, respectively, of the heating curve shown in Figure 30-3?
Figure 30-3:
Heating
Heat Added
3
4
2
Curve.
(A) Kinetic energy remains constant, gas expands.
(B) Kinetic energy increases, gas expands.
(C) Kinetic energy increases, kinetic energy remains constant.
(D) Solid melts, gas expands.
(E) Kinetic energy remains constant in both segments.
55. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) In a closed system, energy can flow from system to surroundings.
(B) In a closed system, the amount of internal energy can change.
(C) The total difference in energy between system and surroundings is constant.
(D) In an adiabatic system, energy does not flow between system and surroundings.
(E) The energy of the universe minus the energy of the system can change.
56. Which of the following processes cannot cause solid water to become liquid?
(A) Adding energy
(B) Decreasing molecular motion
(C) Increasing pressure
(D) Decreasing pressure
(E) Decreasing potential energy
57. Which of the following is most likely to cause precipitation in a solution of Ca(OH)2? The molar solubility of MgCl2 is 5.7mol L-1. The molar solubility of Ca(OH)2 is 0.025mol L-1.
(A) Add heat
(B) Add MgCl2
(C) Add 2% CH3OH(a< )
(D) Add base
(E) Add acid
58. The conjugate base of a weak acid is which of the following?
(A) A weaker base
(B) A stronger base
(C) A stronger acid
(D) Neutral
(E) A salt
59. At 300.K, a 100.L sample of He(g) at 2.00atm pressure consists of hown many moles?
(A) 6.00 / R
(B) 1.50 x R
(C) 0.667 x R
(D) 0.667 / R
(E) 1.50 / R
60. Which of the following properties of water will be affected by dissolved NaCl?
(I) Boiling point
(II) Vapor pressure
(III) Osmotic potential
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III
61. For how long must a current of 2.00 amperes flow in order to transport 2.00 moles of charge?
(A) 9.65 s
(B) 9.65 x 104 s
(C) 38.6 s
(D) 38.6 x 104 s
(E) Not enough information is given.
62. When mixed with 100.mL of 0.100M H2SO4, which of the following produces a solution with pH ~ 7?
(A) 50.0mL 0.2M NaOH
(B) 100.mL 0.2M Mg(OH)2
(C) 50.0mL 0.4M CH3OH
(D) 50.0mL 0.4M KOH
(E) 50.0mL 0.4M Na2SO4
63. The Keq for the following reaction is 0.01: A + B 2C
If the concentrations of A and C are 5.0M and 1.0M, respectively, what must be the approximate concentration of B in an equilibrium mixture?
(A) 5.0M
(B) 4.0M
(C) 1.0M
(D) 20.M
(E) 0.050M
64. Which of the following manipulations represents good laboratory practice?
(I) Adding 10mL 2M HCl to 1L water
(II) Adding 1L water to 10mL 2MHCl
(III) Adding 10mL 10M HCl to 10mL 10M NaOH
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) 1, II, and III
65. The thermodynamic critical point of a CO2 is 304K and 73atm. At 310K and 80atm, what is the phase of CO2?
(A) Solid
(B) Liquid
(C) Gas
(D) Mixture of solid, liquid, and gas
(E) Supercritical fluid
66. A 1.0L container holding He(g) at 2.0atm pressure is joined to a 2.0L container holding CO2(g) at 3.0atm pressure. Assuming constant temperature, what will the mole fraction of helium be when the gases equilibrate in the new volume?
|
(A)
|
0.10
|
|
(B)
|
0.25
|
|
(C)
|
0.33
|
|
(D)
|
0.67
|
|
(E)
|
0.75
|
67. Solid zinc and silver nitrate undergo a
Single displacement reaction. If 4.00 moles of solid silver is formed, what mass of solid zinc was consumed?
(A) 32.7g
(B) 65.4g
(C) 108g
(D) 131g
(E) 216g
Go on to next page

68. After resolving the components of a sample by using thin layer chromatography (TLC), a compound is visible on the TLC plate at retention factor (Rf) value 0.36. The solvent front had mobility of 8.4cm. What was the mobility of the compound?
(A) 4.3 x 10-2 cm
(B) 4.3 cm
(C) 3.0 cm
(D) 5.4 cm
(E) 8.0 cm
69. Which molecule is most polar?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon tetrachloride
(C) Ammonia
(D) Ammonium cation
(E) Sulfur hexafluoride
70. 400.mL of 0.025MNaOH are added to 100.mL of a strong monoprotic acid solution. The pH of the final solution is 7.0. What was
The pOH of the 100.mL solution?
|
(A)
|
-1.00
|
|
(B)
|
10.0-1
|
|
(C)
|
1.00
|
|
(D)
|
10.0-13
|
|
(E)
|
13.00
|
71. What are the oxidation numbers of
Chromium in chromate and dichromate anions, respectively?
(A) +8, +14
(B) +8, +7
(C) +7, +7
(D) +6, +6
(E) +4, +7
72. The pressure of a gaseous recation container is increased. The container holds hydrogen gas, nitrogen gas, and ammonia gas, which all participate in the reaction shown below. What are the possible effects?
3H2(g) + N2(g) <rҐ 2NH3(g)
(I) Reaction rates increase.
(II) Reaction shifts toward products.
(III) Reaction shifts toward reactants.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III
73. Under equivalent conditions of pressure, temperature, and volume, what is the most likely ranking of the number of moles present in samples of methane(g), helium(g), and water(g)?
(A) Helium > methane > water
(B) Water > methane > helium
(C) Helium > water > methane
(D) Methane > water > helium
(E) Water > helium > methane
74. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal?
(A) Mass number 88, atomic number 38
(B) Mass number 86, atomic number 37
(C) Mass number 88, atomic number 39
(D) Mass number 84, atomic number 36
(E) Mass number 137, atomic number 57
75. If uranium-238 emits an alpha particle, what will be the product?
(A) Neptunium-234
(B) Neptunium-238
(C) Uranium-236
(D) Thorium-234
(E) Radium-236
STOP
DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
Chapter Practice Test 335
Free-Response Questions
Part A (55 minutes)
YOU MAY USE YOUR CALCULATOR
CLEARLY SHOW ALL STEPS YOU TAKE TO ARRIVE AT YOUR ANSWER. It is to your advantage to do this, since you will receive partial credit for partially correct responses. Make sure to pay attention to significant figures.
Answer questions 1, 2, and 3. The
Score weighting for each question is 20 percent.
1. Formic acid is a significant component of bee venom. Also known as methanoic acid, formic acid has an acid dissociation constant, Ka, of 1.80 x 10-4.
(a) Calculate the pOH of a 0.25MSolution of formic acid.
(b) Calculate the percent dissociation of the solution in part (a).
(c) Calculate the pH of a solution prepared by mixing equal 1.00L volumes of 0.25M Formic acid and 0.20MSodium methanoate.
(d) Using only compounds already mentioned, what should be added to the solution in part (c) to produce a solution with maximum capacity to resist change in pH? Mention
(i) The compound to be added.
(ii) The mass of the compound to be added
2. A chemist dissolves 51.2g of an unknown, nonelectrolyte compound into 750.g of water. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) For water is 1.86.
(a) Attempting to characterize the unknown, the chemist observes a 1.41 °C difference between the freezing point of the solution and that of pure water. What is the melting point of the solution?
(b) Calculate the molal concentration of the unknown compound in the solution.
(c) Calculate the molar mass of the unknown compound.
(d) A sample of the solid compound is subjected to analysis for percent composition, yielding the following results: 40.0% carbon, 6.70% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen. What is the molecular formula of the unknown compound?
(e) What is one possible Lewis structure for the unknown compound? Write the structure in the space below.
3. Electrical current is passed through a 1.0M Solution of HCl(a<7) by means of two nonre-active electrodes immersed into the solution, with the electrodes connected to opposing terminals of a voltage source.
(a) Sketch and label the diagram of the electrolytic cell, including the direction of electron flow, the half-reaction occurring at each electrode, labels for anode and cathode, and the voltage source.
(b) At 4.5 amperes, how many Coulombs pass through the cell in 30. minutes?
(c) How many moles of electrons pass through the cell in the period described in part (b)?
(d) What number of moles of gas bubble pass from each electrode during the time described in part (b)?
(e) Calculate the volume of gas (at standard temperature and pressure) that would bubble from the cell under a current of 3.0 amperes for 60 minutes.
(f) What happens to the pH of the solution as current passes through it within the cell?
STOP
DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
Chapter Practice Test 337
Part B (40 minutes)
CALCULATORS MAY NOT BE USED
Answer question 4 below. The score weighting for this question is 10 percent.
4. For each of the following three reactions, in part (i) write a balanced equation for the reaction and in part (ii) answer the question about the reaction. In part (i), coefficients should be in terms of lowest whole numbers. Assume that solutions are aqueous unless otherwise indicated. Represent substances in solution as ions if the substances are extensively ionized. Omit formulas for any ions or molecules that are unchanged by the reaction.
(a) Potassium hydroxide is added to a solution of iron (III) sulfate.
(i) Write the balanced equation.
(ii) What would you observe about the reactants and/or products during this reaction?
(b) Current is passed through molten nickel chloride.
(i) Write the balanced equation.
(ii) What occurs at the anode and cathode, respectively?
(c) Magnesium oxide is added to water.
(i) Write the balanced equation.
(ii) What happens to the pH of the resulting solution as the reaction proceeds?
Answer questions 5 and 6 below. The score weighting for each question is 15 percent.
5. Give plausible scientific explanations for each of the following observations.
(a) Oxygen concentrations in deep waters are sometimes higher than those in shallower waters.
(b) Dissolving potassium hydroxide in water heats the solution while dissolving ammonium nitrate in water cools the solution.
(c) Cu(s) conducts electricity well but CuCl2(s) conducts electricity poorly.
6. A set of three vials contains three different organic compounds. Each compound contains only one kind of functional group, and each functional group is different from the others. None of the compounds has an ester or amide linkage, and none is an alkene or alkyne.
(a) All of the compounds possess a car-bonyl group. What kinds of compounds are these three?
(b) Assuming that each of the three compounds contains four carbon atoms, is and is linear (not branched), draw Lewis structures for the three compounds.
(c) Ethanol is added to each of the three vials. With which of the three compounds is ethanol most likely to react to produce an ester?
(d) Draw the Lewis structure of the ester that would be produced in the reaction described in part (c).

Answers to Practice
Test Two
Multiple choice
1. (E). As a group IA metal (that is, an alkali metal), lithium exclusively forms a +1 cation, the better to achieve a full valence shell.
2. (C). Although phosphorous has an oxidation number of +3 in PI3, phosphorous isn’t a metal. In iron (III) sulfate, the iron metal ions each have +3 charge, offsetting the (3)(-2) = -6 charge brought by the sulfate anions.
3. (D). Although nitrogen has a +4 oxidation number in NO2, nitrogen isn’t a metal. In manganese (IV) oxide, the manganese metal ion has +4 charge, offsetting the (2)(-2) = -4 charge brought by the oxygens.
4. (D). As 2-carbon hydrocarbon (too short for branching) with the general formula CnH2n, C2H4 can only be an alkene, H2C = CH2.
5. (E). As the only listed hydrocarbon with an oxygen-containing functional group, C2H4O must be an aldehyde. In this case, C2H4O has the structure H3C-CHO.
6. (A). As 2-carbon hydrocarbon with the general formula CnH2n+2, C2H6 can only be an alkane, H3C-CH3.
7. (C). As the only listed hydrocarbon with an amine-containing functional group, C2H5NH2 must be the amine. In this case, the compound has the structure H3C-CHNH2.
8. (B). As a 2-carbon hydrocarbon with the general formula CnH2n-2, C2H2 can only be an alkyne, HC-CH.
9. (E). Although sigma bonding is completely symmetrical around the axis of a sovalent bond, pi bonding is symmetrical about only a single plane through that axis, with overlapping P Orbitals above and below the plane.
10. (A). In pure ionic bonding, electrons are entirely transferred from one atom or group to another. Because the separation of charge is so complete, the bond is extremely polar.
11. (C). Metallic bonding is characterized by a lattice of positively charged metal atom nuclei, around and through which migrates a "sea" of mobile electrons.
12. (D). Because the molar mass of NO2 is the greatest among the compounds listed, its rate of diffusion is the smallest.
13. (B). Because the two atoms of molecular oxygen are identical, the bonds that connect them are entirely nonpolar. This apolarity results in very weak interactions between O2 molecules.
14. (E). As the compound with the lowest molar mass among those listed, the average kinetic energy associated with a given temperature and pressure derives more from velocity in the case of CO than is the case with the other gases. Because kinetic energy — equal between gases at the same temperature — equals (1/2)(mass)(velocity)2, the kinetic energy of the other gases derives more from mass.
15. (D). Because the molar mass of carbon monoxide is 28.0g/mol, the 56.0g described represents 2 moles CO. At STP, 1 mole of (ideal) gas occupies 22.4L, so 2 moles occupy 44.8L.
16. (D). Typically, conjugate acid/conjugate base pairs include a common molecular "chunk," differing only in the presence or absence of an H+. In the given reaction, for example, H2O is the conjugate acid of OH-, a conjugate base. However, the conjugate base of ascorbic acid, C5H7O4COOH, is ascorbate, C5H7O4COO-.
17. (B). Doubling the concentration of X doubles the reaction rate, suggesting the reaction is first-order in X. Doubling the concentration of W further quadruples the reaction rate, suggesting the reaction is second-order in W. These observations suggest the rate law,
Rate = /e[W]2[X]. The overall reaction order is the sum of the individual exponents, 2 + 1 = 3.
18. (C). Dissociated ions are necessary to carry current through a solution. Although many of the listed compounds are soluble in water, and a few dissociate into ions, only NaOH strongly dissociates into ions when dissolved in water.
19. (E). The given electron configuration is most obviously that of the noble gas, krypton. All the listed ions either shed or gain electrons to achieve the same stable, filled valence shell as krypton. Selenium, though it might gain two electrons to achieve the given configuration, is shown in its neutral, elemental form.
20. (E). Use the Henderson Hasselbach equation, pH = PKa + log([A-]/[HA]). The pKa of 4.76 is
1 pH unit lower than the desired pH of 5.76. So, the term log([A-]/[HA]) needs to equal +1. This, in turn, means that the ratio of A – to HA must equal 10:1.
21. (B). On the reactant side, copper is shown in elemental form, so its oxidation number is 0. On the product side, copper participates in the compound CuCl2. Because the oxidation number of chlorine within compounds is -1, and because the compound has two chloride anions, you know that the oxidation number of copper within the compound must be +2 to offset the negative charge.
22. (E). The Roman numeral within parentheses alerts you to the fact that iron in this compound has +3 charge. Next, recognize the sulfate anion, SO42-. Finally, find the right numerical combination of iron cations and sulfate anions to result in a neutral ionic compound: Fe2(SO4)3.
23. (D). Before finding the mass of nitrogen gas, you must find the number of moles. To do so, first recognize that at 273K, one mole of an ideal gas (like N2) occupies 22.4L at 1atm. But the given pressure is half that — so one mole of gas occupies Twice That volume, which is
2 x 22.4L = 44.8L ~ 45L. So, you’ve got about one mole of N2 on your hands. The molar mass of N2 is 28.0g.
24. (B). The four electron pairs represented by the two bound atoms and two lone pairs suggest a tetrahedral geometry. Because only two of the four orbital axes include actual bonds to actual atoms, the overall molecular shape resulting from the tetrahedral orbital geometry is "bent," just like water.
25. (C). The signs on the terminals of the voltage source clue you into the direction of electron flow within this electrolytic cell. Electrons flow away from the negative terminal, down into electrode 1, through the electrolyte solution and up through electrode 2 toward the positive terminal. So, at electrode 1, Zn2+ cations are reduced by the flow of electrons, electroplating solid zinc onto the electrode surface.
26. (C). The key idea in a neutralization reaction is that the total moles of acid must equal the total moles of base. So, you must provide enough acid to counteract (0.500L)(1.5MKOH) = 0.75mol KOH, where each KOH contributes a single OH-. Because each mole of H3PO4 contributes three equivalents of acid, 0.25MH3PO4 effectively acts as 0.75MAcid. Adding 1000mL (that is, 1.00L) of H3PO4 therefore neutralizes the base.
27. (D). This is a colligative properties question, requiring you to know that the more moles of solute you dissolve into a given mass of water, the more you’ll elevate the boiling point. Because iron (III) nitrate, Fe(NO3)3, dissociates into four ionic particles, the given concentration of that solute contributes the most particles and leads to the highest boiling point.
28. (D). All the listed statements are correct except for the statement about point Y, which alters the energy level of an intermediate state. The equlibirium concentration of product depends on the energy difference between initial (reactant) and final (product) states.
29. (B). Lewis acids are electron acceptors, and Lewis bases are electron donors. The boron of BF3 has two spots still empty in its valence shell. The nitrogen of N(CH3)3 has two available electrons in a lone pair. So, the nitrogen donates its lone pair to the boron, creating a coordinate covalent bond in a Lewis acid/base reaction.
30. (A). First, recognize that the free energy change for a reverse reaction has the same magnitude and opposite sign as the free energy change for the forward reaction. So, the free energy change for the reverse reaction is +35.7kJ = +35700 J. Second, recall the following relationship between the equilibrium constant and the free energy change:
K = E – AG /RT
This means that X = -(-AG/RT) = -35700 / (8.314 x 273).
31. (C). Recall Graham’s law of diffusion and effusion: The ratio of the square roots of the molar masses equals the inverse of the rates of effusion or diffusion. Because the ration of the rates of effusion is 0.35, the ratio of the molar masses is (1 / 0.35)2 = 8.3. Helium has a molar mass of 4.0g/mol. Solve for the molar mass of the unknown by multiplying 8.3 x 4.0g/mol = 33 g/mol.
32. (E). Choices A and B are both strongly polar because of the carboxylate/carboxylic acid group. Choices C and D are both moderately polar because of the alcohol and ketone groups, respectively. Choice E, an alkene, is simply nonpolar, and is therefore the least soluble in water.
33. (B). To understand the redox reaction involved here, view the reaction as a net ionic equation:
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aqJ — Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Now you can see that the first and third listed standard reduction potentials are the relevant ones. Because copper is more easily reduced than zinc (as revealed by its more positive standard reduction potential), you know that copper reduction occurs at the cathode and zinc oxidation occurs at the anode. Finally, apply the equation for calculating a standard cell potential:
Ј°cell = Ј°red(cathode) – Ј°red(anode) = 0.34V – (-0.76V) = +1.10V
34. (D). Methyl red has a pKA of 5.1, the closest to the target pH, and is therefore the most suitable.
35. (B). With a mass number of 40 and 21 neutrons, the element in question must have 19 protons, and therefore an atomic number of 19. Unambiguously, then, the element is potassium.
36. (D). Choice A is the balanced reaction equation. Choice E is the total ionic equation. But only choice D is the net ionic equation.
37. (C). Percent composition is all about mass. The only formula listed in which the mass of sulfur is 20% of the total mass of the compound is Cu2S. Choice E is a red herring, because in that compound sulfur is 20% of the compound by atom count, not by mass.
38. (B). First, concentrate on the moles of H2S produced by the given reaction. The molar mass of nickel (II) sulfide is 90.8g/mol, so 45.4g represents 0.500 mole of the compound. The stoi-chiometry of the reaction tells you that you’ll therefore produce 0.500 mole of hydrogen sul-fide. At standard temperature and pressure, 1 mole gas occupies 22.4L volume. One half of that quantity is 11.2L.
39. (E). Ionization energy increases overall upward and to the right within the periodic table. So, the element with the lowest ionization energy should hold the lowest, most leftward position. Of those elements listed, cesium best fits the bill.
40. (C). To answer this question, you must know the formulas for the common compounds listed, and you must be able to balance a reaction equation:
2C2H6 + 7O2 — 4CO2 + 6H2O
41. (D). Each compound listed shares a 4-carbon skeleton. In linear (not cyclic) compounds, geometric (cis-trans) isomerism doesn’t occur about single bonds, so choice A is out. Both butyne compounds create sp-hybridized carbons with purely linear geometry. Double bonds are classic sites for cis-trans isomerism, but 1-butene is disqualified because one of the carbons participating in the double bond is a terminal carbon attached to two identical hydrogen atoms. So, only 2-butene, with its central double bond, offers the possibility of cis-trans isomerism.
42. (C). This problem requires you to use the dilution equation:
C1 x V1 = C2 X V2
Because you add 400mL to 100mL, notice that your final volume is 500mL, not 400mL.
43. (E). To answer this question, you must remember the definition of the solubility product constant. For the dissolution reaction XY(s) — X(aq) + Y(aq), Ksp = [X]x[Y]. Each of the listed compounds undergoes simple dissociation to 2 counterions (Cu2+ and CO32- on the one hand, Ba2+ and CrO42- on the other hand), [X] = [Y] in each case. So, the concentration of either ion in a saturated solution is simply the square root of the KSp. This fact rules out choices A and B. The common ion effect rules out choice C. The given KSp values reveal that choice D is wrong. Thus, by process of elimination and because the math works out properly, choice E is correct.
44. (E). Ionic compounds have neutral charge. Iron can take on variable charge, as Fe (II) cation or Fe (III) cation. Sulfate anion has -2 charge. Hydroxide anion has -1 charge. So, all three compounds are possible.
45. (B). To answer this question you must first generate a balanced reaction equation:
4CH4 + F2 — 2C2H5Fl + 3H2
If 48g of CH4 react, then 48g / 16g / mol-1 = 3 moles methane react. Because only 2 moles of fluoroethane product are made for every 4 moles of ethane reactant, the theoretical yield of fluoroethane is 1.5 moles. The molar mass of fluoroethane is 48g/mol. So, the theoretical yield of fluoroethane is 1.5 mol x 48g/mol = 72g. The actual yield is 48g. Percent yield = 100% x (actual/theoretical) = 66%.
46. (C). Remember to take bonds to hydrogen into account. Carbons 1 and 2 each have three bond axes, and so are Sp2 Hybridized. Carbon 3 has four bond axes, and so is sp3 hybridized.
47. (D). Standard reduction potentials reflect ease of reduction. Tin (II) cation is most easily reduced, and therefore is mostly likely to oxidize other atoms. So, tin (II) cation is the strongest oxidizing agent listed.
48. (C). Equilibrium shifts to oppose any perturbation. At constant temperature, increasing volume decreases temperature. So, the equilibrium shifts mass in the way that increases pressure — in other words, it shifts to increase the total moles of gas. Because the reactant side has 6 moles gas to the product side’s 3 moles of gas, equilibrium shifts to the left. Choice A is wrong because lower pressures decrease gas-phase reaction rates. Choice B is wrong because lower pressure favors the water vapor, not liquid water. Choice D is wrong because the equilibrium shifts to the left for the reasons already described. Choice E is just plain wrong.
49. (D). Because the compound is decribed as unreactive, choices A, B, and E are unlikely. Choice C may or may not be true, but has little relevance to the observed increase in mass. Hygroscopic compounds are those which interact so strongly with water that they absorb water vapor from the air, thereby increasing the overall mass of the sample.
50. (C). Begin this problem with the Gibbs equation: AG = AH - TAS. Plugging in the given values for AG, AH and T, you can solve for AS, getting -5 J mol-1 K-1. Next, recognize that the temperature at which the reaction moves from spontaneous to nonspontaneous is the one at which the free energy change is zero, so plug in "0" for AG, plug in the values for AH and AS, and solve for T. Doing so gives you 300K.
51. (A). Because pKA = – logKA, it follows that KA = 10-pKa. Using this equation, solve for the acid dissociation constant, KA = 1 x 10-4. Next, remember that KA x KB = KW = 1 x 10-14. Using that fact, solve for the base dissociation constant, KB = 1 x 10-10.
52. (E). For any wave, velocity = frequency x wavelength. For electromagnetic waves in air, velocity = 3.00 x 108 m/s. So, to solve for the frequency, simply divide 3.00 x 108 m/s by the wavelength, 300. x 10-9 m. Doing so gives you 1.00 x 1015.
53. (D). Molality = (moles solute particles) / (kilograms solvent). Start by determining the moles of NaCl present in the 292.3g sample. Using the molar mass of NaCl (58.45g/mol), this figure comes to 5.00 moles. To achieve 2.5 molality, you require 2kg water.
54. (E). Segments 2 and 4 are flat with respect to temperature — though heat is added, that heat goes into accomplishing the phase change of melting or vaporizing, not into increasing the temperature of the sample. So, within neither of these segments does kinetic energy (the underlying cause of temperature) change. Choice D is tempting because solid does melt in segement 2, but segment 4 does not include gas expansion, but rather the conversion of liquid at the boiling point into gas.
55. (C). All the statements are true except choice C. What remains constant is the Sum Of energy between system and surroundings.
56. (B). Water has some pretty anomalous properties, including regions of its phase diagram in which either increasing pressure or decreasing pressure could result in a change from solid to liquid state. However, nowhere in the phase diagram does decreasing temperature (that is, reducing the kinetic energy of molecular motions) cause a shift from solid to liquid.
57. (D). For most solid solutes, adding heat increases solubility. Adding acid increases calcium hydroxide solubility by converting dissociated hydroxide ions into water. Choices B and C could conceivably reduce solubility, but by far the best choice is D, because adding base (that is, effectively adding OH-) reduces calcium hydroxide solubility by the common ion effect.
58. (B). Descriptive chemistry at its finest. The conjugate base of a weak acid is a stronger base. That is why the weak acid is weak.
59. (D). Use the ideal gas law for this one. Rearranged to solve for moles, n, the equation becomes N = (PV) / (RT). Substituting in known values (and leaving R Unsubstituted) gives you (2.00atm x 100.L) / (300.K x R) = 0.667 / R.
60. (E). Boiling point, vapor pressure, and osmotic potential are all colligative properties, properties that change as solute is added to solution..
61. (B). Current equals charge divided by time (I = Q / T), So to solve for time, you must divide the total charge by the current. There are 2.00 moles of charge, which means there are 2 x F Coulombs, or 2(9.65 x 104 coulombs). Divide this quantity by 2.00 amperes (2.00 coulombs per second) to get 9.65 x 104 seconds.
62. (D). A neutral solution (pH = 7) emerges when total moles of base and total moles of acid are equal. Each mole of sulfuric acid contributes two moles acid, so the original solution contains (0.100L)(0.100mol L-1)(2) = 0.0200 moles acid. Using similar calculations on the choices, you’ll find that the 50.0mL of 0.400M KOH offered by choice D does the trick.
63. (D). First, you must be able to construct the expression for the equilibrium constant of the reaction: Keq = [C]2 / ([A]x[B]). Next plug in the known values for Keq, [A] and [C], and solve for [B]. Doing so gives you 20.M.
64. (A). When diluting concentrated acid or concentrated base, always add the concentrated compound to a large volume of water, and not the other way around. The dilution may generate a lot of heat, and by adding to the large volume of water, that heat can be adequately dispersed.
65. (E). Temperatures and pressures above the critical point produce a supercritical fluid.
66. (B). The question is asking about a mole fraction — that of helium within the final mixture, to be precise. From the ideal gas law, you can calculate for the separate helium container that the moles of helium, NHe = (2.0atm)(1.0L) / (RT). Second, you can calculate the moles of carbon dioxide, NCO2 = (3.0atm)(2.0L) / (RT). Because each question shares RT, You can set up the proportion (3.0 / nCO2) = (1.0 / nHe). In other words, there are three times the moles of CO2 as there are moles He. So, the moles fraction of He = 1.0 / (1.0 + 3.0) = 0.25.
67. (D). Start by writing a balanced reaction equation
Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(a< ) — 2Ag(s) + Zn(NO3)2(a< )
From the equation you can see that two moles of solid silver form for every mole of solid zinc consumed. So, to produce four moles of solid silver required two moles of solid zinc. Because each mole of zince has 65.4g mass, the two mole total has mass 131g.
68. (C). To attack this problem, you need to recall that
Rf = (sample mobility) / (solvent mobility)
Substitute in the known values of Rf = 0.36 and solvent mobility = 8.4cm, and you can solve for the sample mobility, which is 3.0cm.
69. (C). Although many of the other compounds have polar covalent bonds, only ammonia has a geometric distribution of bonds and a lone pair whose polarities don’t entirely cancel out.
70. (E). If the pH of the final solution is 7.0 (that is, neutral), then the moles of base added equal the moles of acid originally present in the strong acid solution. The moles of base added were (0.400L)(0.025mol/L) = 0.010mol OH-. Because acid must have been equal to base for the final solution to be neutral, there must have been 0.010mol H+ in the original 0.100L acid solution. In other words, [H+] = 0.010mol / 0.100L = 0.10M. This means that the pH of that acid solution was pH = – log[0.10] = 1.00. Because pH + pOH = 14.00, you know that the pOH of the acid solution was 13.00.
71. (D). You must know the formulas of these polyatomic anions (CrO42- and Cr2O72-) to figure out the oxidation numbers of the metals. In each case, start with the oxygen atoms, each of which carries an oxidation number of -2. In order to offset much of this negative charge while still leaving a -2 formal charge, each chromium atom must carry on oxidation number of +6.
72. (D). Increased pressure can increase reaction rates as particles collide more frequently. Increasing pressure perturbs the equilibrium, which shifts to create lower pressure. In the case of the reaction shown, shifting toward products results in lower pressure because the products contain fewer moles of gas than the reactants.
73. (B). Water molecules have the greatest degree of intermolecular attraction, particularly from hydrogen bonding. Methane molecules lag far behind water in this respect, but can still experience a small intermolecular attraction due to London forces. Of the three substances listed, the atomic noble gas helium has the fewest intermolecular attractions. All other things being equal, the gas with the greatest attractive forces will have the greatest tendency to contract, so achieving any given pressure (at a given temperature) will require more molecules for that gas than for the others.
74. (A). Focus on the atomic number here — the mass numbers can only mislead you because they may represent different isotopes of different elements. Alkaline earth metals are in group IIA, and only atomic number 38, strontium, fits that bill.
75. (D). Alpha particles are helium nuclei, containing two protons and two neutrons. So,
A nuclide that decays by alpha emission loses four mass number units and two atomic number units. By losing two atomic number units, the element is transformed into a different element entirely. The new mass number is 238 – 4 = 234. The new atomic number is 92 – 2 = 90. The new element is thorium, Th.
Free response
1. (a) pOH = 11.83. Make sure you understand the meaning of the KA for this system by writing down the acid dissociation reaction. If the common name, formic acid, doesn’t help you with the structure, the systematic name, methanoic acid, should do so.
CHOOH CHOO- + H+
Ka = ([CHOO-]x[H+]) / [CHOOH] = 1.80 x 10-4
Making a 0.25mol/L formic acid solution begins the process of acid dissociation, in which some concentration, x, shifts from CHOOH form to equivalent concentrations, x, of each of the dissociated forms, CHOO – and H+:
Initial concentration, mol/L Change, mol/L Final concentration, mol/L
CHCOOH, 0.25 -x 0.25-x
CHCOO-, 0 +x x
H+, 0 +x x
Substituting into the expression for KA KA = (x2) / (0.25-x) = 1.80 x 10-4
This equation is a somewhat messy quadratic to solve under time pressure, and it is reasonable to assume that, because formic acid is a weak acid, 0.25-x ~ 0.025. So, the equation simplifies to
1.80 x 10-4 = (x2) / (0.25)
Solving for x gives you 6.7 x 10-3 = x = [H+]. pH = – log[H+] = 2.17 pH + pOH = 14.00, so pOH = 11.83
(b) Percent dissociation = 2.6%. If the total concentration of formic acid and formate together is 0.25mol/L, and the concentration of formate alone is 6.7 x 10-3 mol/L, then the percent dissociation is
100% x (6.7 x 10-3) / (6.7 x 10-3 + 0.25) = 2.6%
(c) pH = 3.64. This is a buffer problem, for which you should use the Henderson-Hasselbach equation:
PH = pKa + log([formate]/[formic acid])
To calculate the pKA: pKA = – logKA = 3.74 pH = 3.74 + log(0.20 / 0.25) = 3.64
(d) (i) Sodium formate. Maximum buffering capacity occurs when the conjugate base and conjugate acid are present in equal concentrations. The initial concentrations are 0.20mol formate / 2.00L = 0.10mol/L formate; 0.25mol formic acid / 2.00L = 0.13mol/L formic acid. You must add enough solid sodium formate, CHCOONa, to result in 0.13mol/L formate, CHCOO-.
(ii) 11g sodium formate
(0.10mol + x mol) / 2.00L = 0.13mol/L formate
Solving for x gives you 0.16mol formate (added as sodium formate, 68.0g/mol) 0.16mol x 68.0g/mol = 11g sodium formate
2. (a) -1.41 °C. Freezing point and melting point are the same temperature. The normal melting point of water is 0 °C, and adding solute lowers the freezing point.
(b) 0.758mol/kg
A7f = Molality X Kf
Substituting in the known values gives you 1.41 °C = Molality X 1.86. Solving for molality gives you 0.758mol/kg.
(c) 90.1g/mol
Molality = (moles solute particles) / (kilograms solvent)
Because the compound is a nonelectrolyte, you needn’t worry that a mole of compound dissolves into multiple moles of ionic particles. So, you can substitute in the known values:
0.758mol/kg = (moles solute) / (0.750kg water)
Moles solute = 0.569 moles
Because the chemist added 51.2g of the compound, you can calculate the apparent molar mass as (mass solute added) / (moles solute) = 51.2g / 0.569 moles = 90.0g/mol.
(d) C3H6O3. Begin by determining the empirical formula. Assume a 100.g sample of the compound. At the given percent composition, the sample will contain 40.0g carbon, 6.70g hydrogen, and 53.3g oxygen. Based on the gram atomic mass of each element, these values correspond to 3.33mol carbon, 6.67mol hydrogen, and 3.33mol oxygen. Dividing all mole values through by the smallest among them (3.33), you come to 1 mole carbon, 2 moles hydrogen, and 1 mole oxygen. These values correspond to the empirical formula CH2O. Next, divide the apparent molar mass of the compound calculated in part (c) by the molar mass of the empirical formula: (90.0g/mol) / (30.0g/mol) = 3. The molecular formula of the compound is a multiple of 3 times the empirical formula:
3 x CH2O = C3H6O3
(e) Figure 30-4 is a possible Lewis structure for the compound.
Figure 30-4:
Lewis dot structure
HO

OH
Dihydroxyacetone, C3H6O.
363
3. (a) Figure 30-5 is a labeled diagram of the electrolytic cell.
Emf
- +
E-
2H+(ao) + 2e – — H,(o)
Figure 30-5:
Electrolytic cell.
N
Cathode
E-
Anode
1.0Af HCl(aq)
2Cl (ao) — 2Cl2(«) + 2e-
2
(b) 8.1 x 103 coulombs. Use the equation Q = It (charge = current x time). Charge = (4.5 coulombs/s)(1.8 x 103 s) = 8.1 x 103 coulombs
(c) 8.4 x 10-2 mol electrons. To calculate the moles of charge, you must use Faraday’s constant: 96485 C/mol e-:
Moles of electrons = (8.1 x 103 coulombs)(1mol / 96485 coulombs) = 8.4 x 10-2 mol
(d) 4.2 x 10-2 mol gas per electrode. Based on the half-reactions shown for the electrodes in part (a), 2 moles of electrons are required to liberate 1 mole of H2(g) and 1 mole of Cl2(g), by reduction and exidation, respectively.
8.4 x 10-2 mol electrons x (1mol gas / 2mol electrons) = 4.2 x 10-2 mol gas
So, 4.2 x 10-2 mol gas are liberated at each electrode, for a total of 8.4 x 10-2 mol gas.
(e) 2.5L total gas. Again, start with Q = It, then convert to moles charge by using Faraday’s constant, and then to moles gas by using the half-reaction equations (noting that 2 moles electrons frees 2 moles gas, if you count both electrodes), and finally to volume of gas by using 22.4L/mol.
(3.0C/s)(3.6 x 103 s)(1mol e-/96485C)(2mol gas/2mol e-)(22.4L/1mol gas) = 2.5L gas (total)
(f) As the electrolysis continues, dissolved hydrochloric acid leaves the solution as H+ is converted into H2 and as Cl – is converted into Cl2. Because the concentration of acid decreases over time, the pH rises.
4. (a) (i) 3OH-(aq) + Fe3+(aq) — Fe(OH)3(s). Because the potassium cation and sulfate anions are ionized and unchanged on both sides of the reaction equation, they are omitted from the net ionic equation.
(ii) A solid precipitate forms as the reaction proceeds. The precise colors of the iron (III) sulfate solution and iron (III) hydroxide precipitate depend on their concentrations. The iron (III) sulfate solution typically has a greenish color, whereas the iron (III) hydroxide product would appear as a red-brown precipitate.
(b) (i) Ni2+(l) + 2Cl-(/) — Ni(s) + Cl2(g). Molten salts are liquid, not aqueous. All reactants and products remain because each changes during the reaction.
(ii) During the course of this salt hydrolysis, solid nickel would deposit at the cathode and chlorine gas would bubble from the anode.
Cathode: Ni2+(l) + 2e – — Ni(s)
Anode: 2Cl-(l) — Cl2(g) + 2e-
(c) (i) MgO(s) + H2O(l) — Mg(OH)2(s) . All reactants and products are shown because all change during the reaction.
(ii) During the course of the reaction, the metal oxide, initially a white powder, would dissolve into a clear aqueous solution and undergo the reaction shown in part (c). Although magnesium hydroxide is only sparingly soluble, some hydroxide ion would dissociate into solution. As the reaction progressed, the pH of the solution would progressively increase due to the appearance of hydroxide ion product.
5. (a) Although atmospheric oxygen occurs at the surface of a deep body of water, two important parameters change as you move to greater depths. First, the temperature decreases. Second, the pressure increases. Decreasing temperatures increase the solubility of gaseous solutes (like oxygen); at lower temperatures, the solutes have decreased kinetic energy and are less able to disrupt the solute-solvent interactions that hold them in solution. At increased pressures, gaseous solutes are more soluble in accordance with Henry’s law.
(b) The tendency of a solute to heat or cool a solution while dissolving is quantified by the parameter, AHsoln, the molar heat of solution. If this parameter is negative, the solute releases heat into solution as it dissolves. If the parameter is positive, the solute absorbs heat from solution as it dissolves. The physical basis for differences in heats of solution lies in the collection of solute-solute, solute-solvent, and solvent-solvent interactions that govern the dissolution process. If, in dissolving, an excess of enthalpically favorable interactions must be disrupted, dissolution is accompanied by an absorption of heat — in other words, by cooling. If, in dissolving, an excess of enthalpically favorable interactions becomes available, dissolution is accompanied by a release of heat — in other words, by heating. Even when dissolution is enthalpically unfavorable, it may nevertheless occur if it is driven by entropic effects.
(c) Solid copper, Cu(s), participates in metallic bonding. Solid copper (II) chloride, CuCl2(s) participates in ionic bonding. In metallic bonding, metal atoms pack into a crystalline lattice in which the electropositive nuclei sit amidst a sea of mobile electrons. The electrons move freely throughout the lattice because the energetic penalty for hopping from one nucleus to the next is negligible. So, when motivated to flow by an applied voltage, the mobile electrons do so. In ionic bonding, the crystalline lattice is composed of alternating ectropositive and electronegative bonding partners. One partner releases electrons and the other partner binds them. In order for electrons to flow under an applied voltage, the favorable electron-electronegative partner interactions would have to be disrupted, which is unfavorable.
6. (a) The three compounds are an aldehyde, a ketone, and a carboxylic acid.
(b) Here are the 4-carbon compounds:
O O O
Butanal butanone butanoic acid
(c) Ethanol is most likely to react with the carboxylic acid compound to form an ester. Esters are the typical products of dehydration reactions between carboxylic acids and alcohols.
(d) Here is a figure of the ester that would form:
O
O
Ethyl butanoate